Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 03:40
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What do you do when you are struggling to fall asleep?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What can you do if you are a full-grown adult, but never experienced being a child?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.